	NORTH Q965 J62 T5 A974
AKT42 A KJ984 K5		87 8753 AQ762 63
	J3 KQT94 3 QJT82

Dealer: North Vul: None MP Scoring

West

2
3
4
Pass

North
Pass
X
Pass
Pass
Pass

East
Pass
Pass
4
5

South
1
Pass
Pass
Pass

Slam Odds

West's 2

bid showed spades and a minor.
East passed North's double and West had a number of options.
Minimum hands simply bid 2

or do they redouble?
Going up to the three level to identify the minor as diamonds, with 3

, additionally shows 16+.
East with 5 card support and club doubleton raised to 4

was limited to a range, not forcing.
How do you value the East hand?
What was the range of the East initial pass? Surely it was unlimited.
Was the 3

bid forcing? One round force? Could it have been passed? What would 4

have shown?
Consider your ranges and West's decision to pass 5

.
West decided that after a North double suggesting heart values, that a South hand would probably include the

A, increasing the

K value.

The 4

suggested an interest in playing in 4

, didn't it?
Or was it a cuebid? There may be no ambiguity for West's bidding it, but East had to choose.

After East's 5 bid, is the West hand really good enough to bid slam?
Would you instead as East bid 6?
The 4 bid showed something, but was this really enough to cuebid 5?

Didn't the 4 bid deny 3 spades? Would East prefer to hold two spades rather than one? Would one better on average?

Declaring West won the opening heart lead, drew trump in two rounds and established a 5th spade for a dummy club discard: 3 spades, 2 spade ruffs, 5 diamonds, and 1 heart : 1 overtrick.